等差数列{an}的公差d不等于0,则a2a6与a3a5

还说明sn=n(a1+an)/2=0sn是关于n的没有常数项的一元二次函数,现在s(0)=s(n),可得对称轴为n/2如果n/2是整数,即n为偶数,最大值在n/2取到；如果n为奇数,在(n+1)/2o

额..a1=da2=2dq=a2/a1=2d/d=2.

设等差数列的公差为d,a1,a3,a13成等比数列,则(a3)²=a1•a13(1+2d)²=1+12d,4d²=8d.因为公差不为0,所以d=2.从而an=

a2=a1+d,a3=a1+2d.,a6=a1+5d,...,a10=a1+9d,若a1,a3,a6成等比数列,则a3^2=a1*a6,(a1+2d)^2=a1*(a1+5d),得到a1=4d.则(a

a1^2=a11^2,∴a1=-a11a1=-(a1+10d)2a1=-10da1=-5dan=a1+(n-1)d=-5d+(n-1)d=(n-6)d∵d0,a6=0,a7

a1,a3,a9成等比数列a3^2=a1*a9(a1+2d)^2=a1*(a1+8d)解得a1=d(a1+a3+a9)/(a2+a4+a10)=(3a1+10d)/(3a1+13d)=13d/16d=

由题知：(a1+2d)(a1+14d)=(a1+8d)^2化简得到：(a1)^2+16a1*d+28d^2=(a1)^2+16a1*d+64d^236d^2=0解得：d=0因为d≠0故无解

a9²=a15²a9²-a15²=0(a9-a15)(a9+a15)=0公差d不等于0所以a9+a15=0a1+8d+a1+14d=0a1+11d=0-----

a2+a4=2*a3=8a3=4,a4=3因此a1=6,d=-1通项为an=6-(n-1)=7-n

1.S5=5a1+10d=5(a1+2d)=70a1+2d=14a3=14a7^2=a2×a22(a3+4d)^2=(a3-d)(a3+19d)a3=14代入,整理,得d(d-4)=0d=0(已知d不

因为a5=a1+4d,a9=a1+8d,a15=a1+14d且a5a9a15成等比数列所以(a1+8d)^2=(a1+4d)(a1+14d)即(a1)^2+16a1*d+64d^2=(a1)^2+18

再问：求k1+2k2+3k3+.......+nkn=多少再答：令S=k1+2k2+...+nkn=2*[3^0+2*3^1+3*3^2+………+n*3^(n-1)]-(1+n)n/2令T=3^0+2

(a3)^2=a13*a1(a1+2d)^2=(a1+12d)*a1d-2a1=0d=2a1s1=a1s3=3a1+3d=9a1s9=9a1+36d=81a1(s3)^2=s1*s9,所以s1s3s9

因为1/anan+1=1/an*（an+d）=1/d[1/an-1/（an+d）]=1/d[1/an-1/an+1]所以1/a1a2+1/a2a3+…+1/anan+1=1/d[1/a1-1/a2+1

【解】（1）方程A(k)(X^2)+2A(k+1)X+A(k+2)=0,则其Δ=4[A(k+1)^2-A(k)*A(k+2)]=4[[A(k)+d]^2-A(k)*[A(k)+2d]]=4d^2>0;

因为{An}是等差数列,所以A2+A8=A4+A6=10,A4*A6=24,所以可将A4、A6看作方程x^2-24x+10=0的两个根,因为d

5或6是对的,a6=0,S5=S6,a1^2=a11^2a11^2-a1^2=0(a11+a1)(a11-a1)=0(2a1+10d)*10d=0d

再问：太给力了，你的回答完美解决了我的问题！

证明：左边＝1/(a1a2)+1/(a2a3)+...+1/(an-1*an)＝1/d(1/a1-1/a2)+1/d(1/a2-1/a3)+...+1/d(1/an-1-1/an)=1/d[(1/a2